I
wish not to dwell on this, because it bears but remotely and
incidentally on the question at issue. I will, therefore, pass on,
quoting {273} only the words of one of the most laborious among Roman
Catholic commentators, De Sacy. "The sense is the same in the one and in
the other, though the expression varies. The sense of the Hebrew is, The
Son of the Woman, Jesus Christ, Son of God, and Son of a Virgin, shall
bruise thy head, and by establishing the kingdom of God on earth,
destroy thine. The sense of the Vulgate is, The woman, by whom thou hast
conquered man, shall bruise thy head, not by herself, but by Jesus
Christ." [Vol. i. p. 132.]
The only other passage in which reference appears to be made in the Old
Testament to the Mother of our Lord, contains that celebrated prophecy
in the seventh chapter of Isaiah, about which I am not aware that any
difference exists between the Anglican and the Roman Churches. "A Virgin
shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
[Isaiah vii. 4.]
I find no passage in the Old Testament which can by any inferential
application be brought to bear on the question of Mary's being a proper
object of invocation.
* * * * *
In the New Testament, mention by name is made of the Virgin Mary by St.
Matthew, St. Mark, and St. Luke, and by St. John in his Gospel, as the
Mother of our Lord, but not by name; and by no other writer.
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